Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 02:01
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Is the 4B movement's aggressiveness against men for seeing women as mantelpieces valid?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.